Financial Management
LEVERAGE ANALYSIS
Part A
Definition of Leverage
The
term leverage may be defined as the risk-return implications associated with
the employment of an asset or sources of funds for which the firm has to pay a
fixed cost or fixed return. There are three types of leverage – operating
leverage, financial leverage and combined leverage.
Operating leverage
The
leverage associated with investment activities is referred to as operating
leverage. It is determined by the relationship between the firm’s sales revenue
and its earnings before interest and tax (EBIT). Operating leverage can be
measured in terms of degree of operating
leverage (DOL). The DOL measures in quantitative terms the extent or degree
of operating risks.
1 |
DOL |
=
(%-age change in EBIT) ÷ (%-age change in sales revenue) |
2 |
DOL |
= Contribution ÷ ABS(EBIT) [Here, ABS(EBIT) means absolute value of EBIT ignoring whether the EBIT is positive or negative.] |
3 |
DOL |
=
(EBIT + Fixed operating costs) ÷ ABS(EBIT) |
DOL
cannot be less than 1(one). DOL is equal to 1(one) when the amount of fixed
operating cost incurred for operating activities is equal to ‘0’ (zero). Higher
levels of risks are attached to higher degrees of operating leverage. The higher
the fixed operating cost the higher is the firm’s operating leverage and its
operating risk. Operating risk is the risk of the firm not being able to cover
its fixed operating costs.
Financial leverage
The
leverage associated with financing activities is called financial leverage. It
represents the relationship between the firm’s earnings before interest and tax
(EBIT) and the earnings per share (EPS). Financial leverage can be measured in
terms of degree of financial leverage
(DFL). The DFL measures in quantitative terms the extent or degree of
financial risks.
4 |
DFL |
=
(%-age change in EPS) ÷ (%-age change in EBIT) |
5 |
DFL |
=
EBIT ÷ [EBIT – I – {DP ÷ (1 – t)}] |
6 |
DFL |
=
EBIT ÷ [EBT – {DP ÷ (1 – t)}] |
7 |
DFL |
=
EBIT ÷ EBT [If DP = 0] |
|
|
I
= Interest |
|
|
DP
= Preference dividend |
|
|
t =
Rate of corporate tax |
DFL
cannot be less than 1(one). DFL is equal to 1(one) when the amount of interest
and preference dividend (i.e., fixed financial charges) is equal to ‘0’ (zero).
Higher levels of risks are attached to higher degrees of financial leverage.
The higher the fixed financial charges the higher is the firm’s financial
leverage and its financial risk. Financial risk is the risk of the firm not
being able to cover its fixed financial costs.
Combined leverage
Operating
leverage has its effects on operating risks and is measured by the percentage
change in EBIT due to percentage change in sales revenue. Financial leverage
has its effects on financial risks and is measured by the percentage change in
EPS due to percentage change in EBIT. Since both these leverages are closely
concerned with ascertaining the firm’s ability to cover fixed charges (fixed
operating costs in case of operating leverage and fixed financial costs in case
of financial leverage), if these two leverages are combined we will get
combined leverage which can be measured in terms of degree of combined leverage (DCL). The DCL measures in quantitative
terms the extent or degree of total risks.
8 |
DCL |
=
(%-age change in EPS) ÷ (%-age change in sales revenue) |
9 |
DCL |
=
Contribution ÷ [EBIT – I – {DP ÷ (1 – t)}] |
10 |
DCL |
=
Contribution ÷ [EBT – {DP ÷ (1 – t)}] |
11 |
DCL |
=
Contribution ÷ EBT [If DP = 0] |
12 |
DCL |
=
(EBIT + Fixed operating costs) ÷ [EBIT – I – {DP ÷ (1 – t)}] |
13 |
DCL |
=
(EBIT + Fixed operating costs) ÷ [EBT – {DP ÷ (1 – t)}] |
14 |
DCL |
=
(EBIT + Fixed operating costs) ÷ EBT [If DP = 0] |
15 |
DCL |
=
DOL x DFL |
|
|
I
= Interest |
|
|
DP
= Preference dividend |
|
|
t =
Rate of corporate tax |
Thus,
the DCL measures the percentage change in EPS due to percentage change in sales
revenue. Higher levels of total risks are attached to higher degrees of
combined leverage.
Some more important and useful formulae:
16 |
%-age
increase in EBIT |
=
DOL × %-age increase in Sales Revenue |
17 |
%-age
increase in EBT |
=
DFL × %-age increase in EBIT |
18 |
%-age
change in EPS |
=
DCL × %-age change in Sales Revenue |
19 |
%-age
increase in EBT |
=
DCL × %-age increase in Contribution |
20 |
%-age
increase in EBT |
=
DCL × %-age increase in Sales Revenue |
Indifference point
When the alternative financing plans produce a same level of EBIT where EPS is also same irrespective of the debt-equity mix, the situation is referred to as ‘indifference point’ (also known as ‘indifference level’). In other words, it is the level of EBIT where the EPS will be equal under alternative financing plans.
Indifference point is also known as break-even point of EBIT for alternative financing plans. If EBIT exceeds the indifference point, the use of debt financing would be beneficial to maximise the EPS. On the other hand, if EBIT is less than the indifference point, the use of equity financing would be preferred for maximising the EPS.
The
indifference point can be calculated by using the following equation:
[{(EBIT
– I1) (1 – t)} – DP1] ÷ N1 |
=
[{(EBIT – I2) (1 – t)} – DP2] ÷ N2 |
Where,
I1 |
=
Interest under first alternative plan |
I2 |
=
Interest under second alternative plan |
t |
=
Rate of corporate tax |
DP1 |
=
Preference dividend under first alternative plan |
DP2 |
=
Preference dividend under second alternative plan |
N1 |
=
Number of equity shares under first alternative plan |
N2 |
=
Number of equity shares under second alternative plan |
Financial break-even point
The amount of EBIT or the level of EBIT when the EPS will be ‘0’ (zero)
under a particular financing plan is known as the “financial break-even point”
of the financing plan. Financial break-even
point is also known as “financial break-even level”. The
financial break-even point can be calculated by using the following equation:
[{(EBIT
– I) (1 – t)} – DP] ÷ N |
=
0 |
Where,
I |
=
Interest under a financial plan |
t |
=
Rate of corporate tax |
DP |
=
Preference dividend under a financial plan |
N |
=
Number of equity shares under a financial plan |
Income statement
|
Particulars |
Rs |
|
Sales |
××× |
Less |
Variable
cost |
××× |
|
CONTRIBUTION |
××× |
Less |
Fixed
operating cost (e.g. depreciation, rent, ins. premiums, etc.) |
××× |
|
EBIT |
××× |
Less |
Fixed
financial cost (e.g. interest on loan, debentures, etc.) |
××× |
|
EBT |
××× |
Less |
Income
tax |
××× |
|
EAT |
××× |
Less |
Preference
dividend |
××× |
|
DIVISIBLE PROFIT [i.e. Profit Available For Equity Shareholders
(PAFES)] |
××× |
|
EPS (Earnings Per Share) [PAFES
÷ Number of equity shares outstanding] |
××× |
|
MPS (Market Price per Share) [EPS
× P/E Ratio] |
××× |
EBIT-EPS Analysis
EBIT-EPS analysis is one of the most widely used techniques employed in financial management to design an appropriate (i.e. optimum) capital structure of a company. Under two different situations the optimum capital structure of a company can be calculated in two different ways as follows:
1. When P/E Ratio is not given in the problem
The capital structure which generates the highest EPS (Earnings per share) is the optimum capital structure.
2. When P/E Ratio is given in the problem
The capital structure which ensures the
highest MPS (Market price per share) is the
optimum capital structure.
Part B
Illustration:
1
Crompton Ltd. a profit making company has a paid-up
capital of Rs 100 lakhs consisting of 10 lakhs ordinary shares of Rs 10 each.
Currently, it is earning an annual pre-tax profit of Rs 60 lakhs. The company’s
shares are listed and are quoted in the range of Rs 50 to Rs 80. The management
wants to diversify production and has approved a project which will cost Rs 50
lakhs and which is expected to yield a pre-tax income of Rs 40 lakhs per annum.
To raise this additional capital, the following options are under consideration
of the management:
(i) To
issue equity share capital for the entire additional amount. It is expected that
the new shares (face value of Rs 10) can be sold at a premium of Rs 15.
(ii) To
issue 16% non-convertible debentures of Rs 100 each for the entire amount.
(iii) To
issue equity capital for Rs 25 lakhs (face value of Rs 10) and 16%
non- convertible debentures for the balance amount. In this case, the company can issue shares at a premium of Rs 40 each.
Advise the management as to how the additional capital
can be raised, keeping in mind that the management wants to maximise the
earnings per share to maintain its goodwill. The company pays income tax at
50%.
Solution: 1
Computation of
EPS under three different options
Particulars |
Option I |
Option II |
Option III |
Capital structure of new issue |
Only Equity |
Only Debt |
Equity + Debt |
Total no. of equity shares after the new issue: |
|
|
|
Existing |
10,00,000 |
10,00,000 |
10,00,000 |
Add: New |
|
|
|
Rs 50,00,000 ÷ 25 |
2,00,000 |
|
|
Rs 25,00,000 ÷ 50 |
|
|
50,000 |
Total no. of
equity shares |
12,00,000 |
10,00,000 |
10,50,000 |
|
Rs |
Rs |
Rs |
EBIT: |
|
|
|
Existing |
60,00,000 |
60,00,000 |
60,00,000 |
From the new project |
40,00,000 |
40,00,000 |
40,00,000 |
Total EBIT |
100,00,000 |
100,00,000 |
100,00,000 |
Less: Interest |
|
|
|
For Project: II [Rs 50,00,000 × 16%] |
|
8,00,000 |
|
For Project: III [Rs 25,00,000 × 16%] |
|
|
4,00,000 |
EBT |
100,00,000 |
92,00,000 |
96,00,000 |
Less: Income Tax @ 50% |
50,00,000 |
46,00,000 |
48,00,000 |
EAT |
50,00,000 |
46,00,000 |
48,00,000 |
EPS [EAT ÷
Number of Equity Shares] |
4.17 |
4.60 |
4.57 |
Advice to the management:
Additional
capital should be raised by adopting Option: II i.e. by issuing 16% NCD only,
because Option: II has the highest EPS of Rs 4.60
Illustration: 2
Calculate the
Degree of Operating Leverage (DOL), Degree of Financial Leverage (DFL) and the
Degree of Combined Leverage (DCL) for the following firms and interpret the
results.
Particulars |
Firm K |
Firm L |
Firm M |
1. Output
(Units) |
60,000 |
15,000 |
1,00,000 |
2. Fixed costs
(Rs) |
7,000 |
14,000 |
1,500 |
3. Variable
cost per unit (Rs) |
0.20 |
1.50 |
0.02 |
4. Interest on
borrowed funds (Rs) |
4,000 |
8,000 |
- |
5. Selling
price per unit (Rs) |
0.60 |
5.00 |
0.10 |
Solution: 2
Computation of
different leverages
|
Particulars |
Firm K |
Firm L |
Firm M |
1 |
Output (units) |
60,000 |
15,000 |
1,00,000 |
2 |
Selling price p.u. (Rs) |
0.60 |
5.00 |
0.10 |
3 |
Variable cost p.u. (Rs) |
0.20 |
1.50 |
0.02 |
4 |
Contribution p.u. (Rs) [2 – 3] |
0.40 |
3.50 |
0.08 |
5 |
Total contribution (Rs) [1 × 4] |
24,000 |
52,500 |
8,000 |
6 |
Fixed cost (Rs) |
7,000 |
14,000 |
1,500 |
7 |
EBIT (Rs) [5 – 6] |
17,000 |
38,500 |
6,500 |
8 |
Interest (Rs) |
4,000 |
8,000 |
- |
9 |
EBT (Rs) [7 – 8] |
13,000 |
30,500 |
6,500 |
10 |
DOL [5 ÷ 7] |
1.41 |
1.36 |
1.23 |
11 |
DFL [7 ÷ 9] |
1.31 |
1.26 |
1.00 |
12 |
DCL [5 ÷ 9] |
1.85 |
1.72 |
1.23 |
Interpretation:
Both DOL and DFL are highest in case of Firm K,
whereas both DOL and DFL are lowest in case of Firm M. Therefore, Firm K is most
risky and Firm M is least risky.
Illustration:
3
A firm has sales of Rs 10, 00,000, variable cost of Rs
7, 00,000 and fixed costs of Rs 2, 00,000 and debt of Rs 5, 00,000 at 10% rate
of interest. What are the operating, financial and combined leverages? It the
firm wants to double its Earnings before interest and tax (EBIT), how much of a
rise in sales would be needed on a percentage basis?
Solution: 3
Computation of
different leverages
|
Particulars |
Rs |
1 |
Sales |
10,00,000 |
2 |
Variable cost |
7,00,000 |
3 |
Contribution [1 –
2] |
3,00,000 |
4 |
Fixed Operating Cost |
2,00,000 |
5 |
EBIT
[3 – 4] |
1,00,000 |
6 |
Fixed Financial Cost (Interest) [Rs 5,00,000 × 10%] |
50,000 |
7 |
EBT
[5 – 6] |
50,000 |
8 |
DOL
[3 ÷ 5] |
3 |
9 |
DFL [5 ÷ 7] |
2 |
10 |
DCL
[3 ÷ 7] |
6 |
We know, DOL = %-age change in EBIT ÷ %-age change in
Sales
⇒ %-age
increase in Sales = %-age increase in EBIT ÷ DOL
Let, EBIT can be doubled i.e. increased by 100%, if
Sales are increased by x%.
∴ x = 100 ÷ DOL
⇒ x = 100 ÷
3 [DOL is 3, as calculated above]
⇒ x = 331/3
⇒ In order to
double the EBIT (when DOL is 3), Sales would be needed to be increased by 331/3%.
Verification:
|
Particulars |
Rs |
1 |
Sales [Rs 10,00,000 × 1331/3%] |
13,33,333 |
2 |
Variable cost [Rs 13,33,333 × 70%] |
9,33,333 |
3 |
Contribution [1 –
2] |
4,00,000 |
4 |
Fixed Operating Cost |
2,00,000 |
5 |
EBIT [3 – 4] |
2,00,000 |
Illustration:
4
X Corporation has estimated that for a new product its
break-even point is 2,000 units if the items are sold for Rs 14 per unit; the
Cost Accounting department has currently identified variable cost of Rs 9 per
unit. Calculate the degree of operating leverage for sales volume of 2,500
units and 3,000 units. What do you infer from the degree of operating leverage
at the sales volumes of 2,500 units and 3,000 units and their difference if any?
Solution: 4
Computation of
Operating Leverage
|
Particulars |
2,500 units |
3,000 units |
1 |
Sales @ Rs 14 p.u. |
35,000 |
42,000 |
2 |
Variable cost @ Rs 9 p.u. |
22,500 |
27,000 |
3 |
Contribution @ Rs 5 p.u. [1 – 2] |
12,500 |
15,000 |
4 |
Fixed cost
[W. N.] |
10,000 |
10,000 |
5 |
EBIT [3
– 4] |
2,500 |
5,000 |
6 |
DOL [3
÷ 5] |
5 |
3 |
Working note:
Break-Even Point is 2,000 units, i.e. at 2,000 units
sales volume, Contribution = Fixed Cost. ∴ Fixed Cost =
Contribution from 2,000 units ⇒ Rs 5 × 2,000
= Rs 10,000.
Assumption:
There is no interest cost. Entire fixed cost comprises
fixed operating cost.
Inference:
When sales volume increased from 2,500 units to 3,000
units by 20%, operating income (EBIT) increased 100% from Rs 2,500 to Rs 5,000,
i.e. 5 times of 20%, while Operating Leverage at sales level of 2,500 units is
5.
Therefore, it can be said that, with respect to a
particular operating level,
%-age increase in Sales × DOL = %-age increase in EBIT
Illustration:
5
The following information is available for PKJ &
Co.:-
|
Rs |
EBIT |
11,20,000 |
Profit before Tax |
3,20,000 |
Fixed operating costs |
7,00,000 |
Calculate % change in EPS if the sales are expected to increase by 5%.
Solution: 5
We know, %-age change in EPS = %-age change in Sales × DCL
Here, DCL = Contribution ÷ EBT
=
(EBIT + Fixed operating costs) ÷ EBT
=
(11, 20,000 + 7, 00,000) ÷ 3, 20,000
=
5.69
Therefore, if sales increase by 5%,
EPS will increase by (5 × 5.69) % = 28.45%
Illustration: 6
XYZ and Co. has three financial plans
before it, Plan I, Plan II and Plan III. Calculate operating and financial
leverage for the firm on the basis of the following information and also find
out the highest and lowest value of combined leverage:
Production |
800 Units |
Selling Price per unit |
Rs 15 |
Variable cost per unit |
Rs 10 |
Fixed
Cost: |
|
Situation A |
Rs 1,000 |
Situation B |
Rs 2,000 |
Situation C |
Rs 3,000 |
Capital Structure |
Plan I |
Plan II |
Plan III |
Equity Capital |
Rs 5,000 |
Rs 7,500 |
Rs 2,500 |
12% Debt |
Rs 5,000 |
Rs 2,500 |
Rs 7,500 |
Solution: 6
Computation of leverages for three different plans of capital
structures
Situation A
|
Particulars |
Plan I |
Plan II |
Plan III |
1 |
Sales (Rs 15 × 800) |
12,000 |
12,000 |
12,000 |
2 |
Variable cost (Rs 10 × 800) |
8,000 |
8,000 |
8,000 |
3 |
Contribution (1 – 2) |
4,000 |
4,000 |
4,000 |
4 |
Fixed operating cost |
1,000 |
1,000 |
1,000 |
5 |
EBIT (3 – 4) |
3,000 |
3,000 |
3,000 |
6 |
Interest |
600 |
300 |
900 |
7 |
EBT (5 – 6) |
2,400 |
2,700 |
2,100 |
8 |
DOL (3 ÷ 5) |
1.33 |
1.33 |
1.33 |
9 |
DFL (5 ÷ 7) |
1.25 |
1.11 |
1.43 |
10 |
DCL (3 ÷ 7) |
1.67 |
1.48 |
1.90 |
Situation B
|
Particulars |
Plan I |
Plan II |
Plan III |
1 |
Sales (Rs 15 × 800) |
12,000 |
12,000 |
12,000 |
2 |
Variable cost (Rs 10 × 800) |
8,000 |
8,000 |
8,000 |
3 |
Contribution (1 – 2) |
4,000 |
4,000 |
4,000 |
4 |
Fixed operating cost |
2,000 |
2,000 |
2,000 |
5 |
EBIT (3 – 4) |
2,000 |
2,000 |
2,000 |
6 |
Interest |
600 |
300 |
900 |
7 |
EBT (5 – 6) |
1,400 |
1,700 |
1,100 |
8 |
DOL (3 ÷ 5) |
2 |
2 |
2 |
9 |
DFL (5 ÷ 7) |
1.43 |
1.18 |
1.82 |
10 |
DCL (3 ÷ 7) |
2.86 |
2.35 |
3.64 |
Situation C
|
Particulars |
Plan I |
Plan II |
Plan III |
1 |
Sales (Rs 15 × 800) |
12,000 |
12,000 |
12,000 |
2 |
Variable cost (Rs 10 × 800) |
8,000 |
8,000 |
8,000 |
3 |
Contribution (1 – 2) |
4,000 |
4,000 |
4,000 |
4 |
Fixed operating cost |
3,000 |
3,000 |
3,000 |
5 |
EBIT (3 – 4) |
1,000 |
1,000 |
1,000 |
6 |
Interest |
600 |
300 |
900 |
7 |
EBT (5 – 6) |
400 |
700 |
100 |
8 |
DOL (3 ÷ 5) |
4 |
4 |
4 |
9 |
DFL (5 ÷ 7) |
2.50 |
1.43 |
10 |
10 |
DCL (3 ÷ 7) |
10 |
5.71 |
40 |
Highest Combined
Leverage: Plan III / Situation C
Lowest Combined
Leverage: Plan II / Situation A
Illustration: 7
The selected financial
data for A, B and C companies for the year ended March, 2016 are as follows:
Particulars |
A |
B |
C |
Variable expenses as a
%-age of Sales |
66.67 |
75 |
50 |
Interest |
Rs 200 |
Rs 300 |
Rs 1,000 |
Degree of Operating
leverage |
5: 1 |
6: 1 |
2: 1 |
Degree of Financial
leverage |
3: 1 |
4: 1 |
2: 1 |
Income tax rate |
50% |
50% |
50% |
Prepare Income Statements for
A, B and C companies.
Solution: 7
Company A
1.
DFL = EBIT ÷
(EBIT – 200) = 3
⇒ 3EBIT – 600 = EBIT
⇒ 2EBIT = 600
⇒ EBIT = 300
2.
DOL = Contribution ÷ EBIT = 5
⇒ Contribution ÷ 300 = 5
⇒ Contribution = 1,500
3.
Variable expenses = 662/3% of
sales
⇒ Contribution = 331/3% i.e. 1/3rd
of sales
∴ Sales = 1,500 × 3 = 4,500, and
∴ Variable cost = 2/3rd
of sales = 2/3rd of 4,500 = 3,000
4.
Fixed operating cost = Contribution – EBIT
⇒ Fixed operating cost = 1,500 – 300 = 1,200
Company B
1.
DFL = EBIT ÷
(EBIT – 300) = 4
⇒ 4EBIT – 1,200 = EBIT
⇒ 3EBIT = 1,200
⇒ EBIT = 400
2.
DOL = Contribution ÷ EBIT = 6
⇒ Contribution ÷ 400 = 6
⇒ Contribution = 2,400
3.
Variable expenses = 75% of sales
⇒ Contribution = 25% i.e. 1/4th of sales
∴ Sales = 2,400 × 4 = 9,600, and
∴ Variable cost = 3/4th
of sales = 3/4th of 9,600 = 7,200
4.
Fixed operating cost = Contribution – EBIT
⇒ Fixed operating cost = 2,400 – 400 = 2,000
Company C
1.
DFL = EBIT ÷
(EBIT – 1,000) = 2
⇒ 2EBIT – 2,000 = EBIT
⇒ EBIT = 2,000
2.
DOL = Contribution ÷ EBIT = 2
⇒ Contribution ÷ 2,000 = 2
⇒ Contribution = 4,000
3.
Variable expenses = 50% of sales
⇒ Contribution = 50% i.e. ½ of sales
∴ Sales = 4,000 × 2 = 8,000, and
∴ Variable cost = ½ of sales = ½ of
8,000 = 4,000
4.
Fixed operating cost = Contribution – EBIT
⇒ Fixed operating cost = 4,000 – 2,000 = 2,000
Income statements for companies ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’
|
Particulars |
A |
B |
C |
1 |
Sales |
4,500 |
9,600 |
8,000 |
2 |
Variable cost |
3,000 |
7,200 |
4,000 |
3 |
Contribution (1 – 2) |
1,500 |
2,400 |
4,000 |
4 |
Fixed operating cost |
1,200 |
2,000 |
2,000 |
5 |
EBIT (3 – 4) |
300 |
400 |
2,000 |
6 |
Interest |
200 |
300 |
1,000 |
7 |
EBT (5 – 6) |
100 |
100 |
1,000 |
8 |
Income tax @ 50% |
50 |
50 |
500 |
9 |
EAT (7 – 8) |
50 |
50 |
500 |
Illustration: 8
The
following data is available for XYZ Ltd.:
Particulars |
Rs |
Sales |
2,00,000 |
Less : Variable cost @
30% |
60,000 |
Contribution |
1,40,000 |
Less : Fixed Cost |
1,00,000 |
EBIT |
40,000 |
Less: Interest |
5,000 |
Profit before tax |
35,000 |
Find out:
(a) Using the
concept of financial leverage, by what percentage will the taxable income
increase if EBIT increase by 6%?
(b) Using the
concept of operating leverage, by what percentage will EBIT increase if there
is 10% increase in sales, and
(c) Using the
concept of leverage, by what percentage will the taxable income increase if the
sales increase by 6%? Also verify results in view of the above figures.
Solution: 8
(a) DFL = EBIT ÷ EBT =
40,000 ÷ 35,000 = 1.142857
%-age increase in
EBT = DFL × %-age increase in EBIT
∴ %-age increase in EBT = (1.142857 × 6) % = 6.86%
(b) DOL = Contribution
÷ EBIT = 1,40,000 ÷ 40,000 = 3.50
%-age increase in EBIT = DOL × %-age
increase in Sales
∴ %-age increase in
EBIT = (3.50 × 10) % = 35%
(c) DCL = Contribution
÷ EBT = 1,40,000 ÷ 35,000 = 4
%-age increase in EBT = DCL × %-age
increase in Sales
∴ %-age increase in
EBT = (4 × 6) % = 24%
Illustration: 9
(i) Find out
operating leverage from the following data:
Sales |
Rs 50,000 |
Variable Costs |
60% |
Fixed Costs |
Rs 12,000 |
(ii) Find out of financial leverage
from the following data:
Net Worth |
Rs 25,00,000 |
Debt/Equity |
3: 1 |
Interest rate |
12% |
Operating Profit |
Rs 20,00,000 |
Solution: 9
(I)
Particulars |
Rs |
Sales |
50,000 |
Variable cost
(60%) |
30,000 |
Contribution |
20,000 |
Fixed operating
cost |
12,000 |
EBIT |
8,000 |
DOL (Contribution
÷ EBIT = 20,000 ÷ 8,000) |
2.50 |
(II)
Particulars |
Rs |
Net Worth |
25,00,000 |
Debt-Equity Ratio |
3: 1 |
∴ Debt Capital (Rs 25,00,000 × 3) |
75,00,000 |
Interest (Rs 75,
00,000 × 12%) |
9,00,000 |
EBIT |
20,00,000 |
∴ EBT (EBIT – Interest = 20,00,000 – 9,00,000) |
11,00,000 |
DFL (EBIT ÷ EBT =
20,00,000 ÷ 11,00,000) |
1.82 |
Illustration: 10
From the following,
prepare Income Statements of A, B and C firms.
Particulars |
A |
B |
C |
Financial leverage |
3: 1 |
4: 1 |
2: 1 |
Interest |
Rs 200 |
Rs 300 |
Rs 1,000 |
Operating leverage |
4: 1 |
5: 1 |
3: 1 |
Variable cost as a %-age
of Sales |
66.67 |
75 |
50 |
Income tax rate |
45% |
45% |
45% |
Solution: 10
Company A
1.
DFL = EBIT ÷
(EBIT – 200) = 3
⇒ 3EBIT – 600 = EBIT
⇒ 2EBIT = 600
⇒ EBIT = 300
2.
DOL = Contribution ÷ EBIT = 4
⇒ Contribution ÷ 300 = 4
⇒ Contribution = 1,200
3.
Variable expenses = 662/3% of
sales
⇒ Contribution = 331/3% i.e. 1/3rd
of sales
∴ Sales = 1,200 × 3 = 3,600, and
∴ Variable cost = 2/3rd
of sales = 2/3rd of 3,600 = 2,400
4.
Fixed operating cost = Contribution – EBIT
⇒ Fixed operating cost = 1,200 – 300 = 900
Company B
1.
DFL = EBIT ÷
(EBIT – 300) = 4
⇒ 4EBIT – 1,200 = EBIT
⇒ 3EBIT = 1,200
⇒ EBIT = 400
2.
DOL = Contribution ÷ EBIT = 5
⇒ Contribution ÷ 400 = 5
⇒ Contribution = 2,000
3.
Variable expenses = 75% of sales
⇒ Contribution = 25% i.e. 1/4th of sales
∴ Sales = 2,000 × 4 = 8,000, and
∴ Variable cost = 3/4th
of sales = 3/4th of 8,000 = 6,000
4.
Fixed operating cost = Contribution – EBIT
⇒ Fixed operating cost = 2,000 – 400 = 1,600
Company C
1.
DFL = EBIT ÷
(EBIT – 1,000) = 2
⇒ 2EBIT – 2,000 = EBIT
⇒ EBIT = 2,000
2.
DOL = Contribution ÷ EBIT = 3
⇒ Contribution ÷ 2,000 = 3
⇒ Contribution = 6,000
3.
Variable expenses = 50% of sales
⇒ Contribution = 50% i.e. ½ of sales
∴ Sales = 6,000 × 2 = 12,000, and
∴ Variable cost = ½ of sales = ½ of
12,000 = 6,000
4.
Fixed operating cost = Contribution – EBIT
⇒ Fixed operating cost = 6,000 – 2,000 = 4,000
Income statements for companies ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’
|
Particulars |
A |
B |
C |
1 |
Sales |
3,600 |
8,000 |
12,000 |
2 |
Variable cost |
2,400 |
6,000 |
6,000 |
3 |
Contribution (1 – 2) |
1,200 |
2,000 |
6,000 |
4 |
Fixed operating cost |
900 |
1,600 |
4,000 |
5 |
EBIT (3 – 4) |
300 |
400 |
2,000 |
6 |
Interest |
200 |
300 |
1,000 |
7 |
EBT (5 – 6) |
100 |
100 |
1,000 |
8 |
Income tax @ 45% |
45 |
45 |
450 |
9 |
EAT (7 – 8) |
55 |
55 |
550 |
Illustration: 11
ABC Ltd. wants to raise Rs
5, 00,000 as additional capital. It has two mutually exclusive alternative
financial plans. The current EBIT is Rs 17, 00,000 which is likely to remain
unchanged. The relevant Information is:-
Present Capital Structure:
3,00,000 Equity shares of
Rs 10 each and 10% Bonds of Rs 20,00,000.
Tax Rate: |
50% |
Current EBIT: |
Rs 17,00,000 |
Current EPS: |
Rs 2.50 |
Current Market Price: |
Rs 25 per share |
Financial Plan I: |
20,000
Equity Shares at Rs 25 per share |
Financial Plan II: |
12%
Debentures of Rs 5,00,000 |
What is the indifference level
of EBIT? Identify the financial break-even levels.
Solution: 11
Formula for Indifference Level
of EBIT:-
[{(EBIT – I1) (1 – t)} – DP1] ÷
N1 = [{(EBIT – I2) (1 – t)} – DP2] ÷ N2
Where,
I1 |
=
Interest under first alternative plan |
I2 |
=
Interest under second alternative plan |
t |
=
Rate of corporate tax |
DP1 |
=
Preference dividend under first alternative plan |
DP2 |
=
Preference dividend under second alternative plan |
N1 |
=
Number of equity shares under first alternative plan |
N2 |
=
Number of equity shares under second alternative plan |
Here,
I1 |
20,00,000 × 10% = 2,00,000 |
I2 |
20,00,000 × 10% + 5,00,000 × 12% = 2,60,000 |
t |
50% i.e. 0.50 |
DP1 |
Nil |
DP2 |
Nil |
N1 |
3,00,000 + 20,000 = 3,20,000 |
N2 |
3,00,000 |
Accordingly,
[(EBIT – 2, 00,000) × (1 – 0.50)]
÷ 3, 20,000
= [(EBIT – 2, 60,000) × (1 –
0.50)] ÷ 3, 00,000
⇒ (EBIT – 2, 00,000) ÷ 16 = (EBIT – 2, 60,000) ÷ 15
⇒ 16EBIT – 41, 60,000 = 15EBIT – 30, 00,000
⇒ EBIT = 11, 60,000
Therefore, the Indifference
Level of EBIT is Rs 11, 60,000, and it implies that at this level of EBIT both
the financial plans will generate same EPS.
Formula for financial
break-even level of EBIT:-
[(EBIT – I) × (1 – t) – DP]
÷ N = 0
Where,
I |
=
Interest under a financial plan |
t |
=
Rate of corporate tax |
DP |
=
Preference dividend under a financial plan |
N |
=
Number of equity shares under a financial plan |
Accordingly,
For Financial Plan I:-
[(EBIT – 2, 00,000) × (1 –
0.50)] ÷ 3, 20,000 = 0
⇒ EBIT = 2, 00,000
⇒ At EBIT of Rs 2, 00,000, EPS of Financial Plan I will be
‘0’.
For Financial Plan II:-
[(EBIT – 2, 60,000) × (1 –
0.50)] ÷ 3, 00,000 = 0
⇒ EBIT = 2, 60,000
⇒ At EBIT of Rs 2, 60,000, EPS of Financial Plan II will be
‘0’.
Illustration:
12
From
the following financial data of Company A and Company B prepare their income
Statements.
Particulars |
Company A |
Company B |
Variable
Cost (Rs) |
56,000 |
60% of sales |
Fixed
Operating Cost (Rs) |
20,000 |
- |
Interest
Expenses (Rs) |
12,000 |
9,000 |
Financial
Leverage |
5:1 |
- |
Operating
Leverage |
- |
4:1 |
Income
Tax Rate |
30% |
30% |
Sales
(Rs) |
- |
1,05,000 |
Solution: 12
Company A
1. DFL = EBIT ÷ (EBIT –
12,000) = 5
⇒ 5EBIT – 60,000 = EBIT
⇒ 4EBIT = 60,000
⇒ EBIT = 15,000
2. Contribution = EBIT + Fixed Operating Cost
⇒ Contribution = 15,000 + 20,000 = 35,000
3. Sales – Variable Cost = Contribution
⇒ Sales = Variable Cost + Contribution
⇒ Sales = 56,000 + 35,000 = 91,000
Company B
1. DOL = Contribution ÷ EBIT = 4
⇒ 40% of Sales ÷ EBIT = 4
⇒ 40% of 1,
05,000 ÷ EBIT = 4
⇒ 42,000 ÷ EBIT = 4
⇒ 4EBIT = 42,000
⇒ EBIT = 10,500
2. Fixed Operating Cost = Contribution – EBIT
⇒ Fixed Operating Cost = 40% of Sales – EBIT
⇒ Fixed Operating Cost = 40% of 1, 05,000 – EBIT
⇒ Fixed Operating Cost = 42,000 – 10,500
⇒ Fixed Operating Cost = 31,500
3. Variable Cost = 60% of sales
⇒ Variable Cost = 60% of 1, 05,000
⇒ Variable Cost = 63,000
Income
statements for companies ‘A’, and ‘B’
|
Particulars |
Company
A |
Company
B |
1 |
Sales |
91,000 |
1,05,000 |
2 |
Variable
Cost |
56,000 |
63,000 |
3 |
Contribution
(1 – 2) |
35,000 |
42,000 |
4 |
Fixed
Operating Cost |
20,000 |
31,500 |
5 |
EBIT (3
– 4) |
15,000 |
10,500 |
6 |
Interest
Expenses |
12,000 |
9,000 |
7 |
EBT (5 –
6) |
3,000 |
1,500 |
8 |
Income
Tax (@ 30%) |
900 |
450 |
9 |
EAT (7 –
8) |
2,100 |
1,050 |
Illustration: 13
The XYZ
Company plans to expand assets by 50%. To finance the expansion it is choosing
between a straight 6% debt issue and equity issue. Its current balance sheet and
income statement are shown below:
Balance Sheet of XYZ Company as at
31.03.2020
Liabilities |
Rs |
Assets |
Rs |
Equity share capital (@ Rs 10 per share) |
10,00,000 |
Total assets |
20,00,000 |
5% Debt |
4,00,000 |
|
|
Current liabilities |
6,00,000 |
|
|
|
20,00,000 |
|
20,00,000 |
Income Statement of XYZ Company for the
year ended 31.03.2020
Particulars |
Rs |
Sales |
60,00,000 |
Less: Total cost (excluding interest) |
53,80,000 |
EBIT |
6,20,000 |
Less: Interest on debt (Rs 4, 00,000 × 5%) |
20,000 |
EBT |
6,00,000 |
Less: Taxes (@ 35%) |
2,10,000 |
EAT (Net Income) |
3,90,000 |
If the
company finances the proposed expansion with debt, the rate of interest for the
incremental debt will be 6% and the price/earnings ratio of the equity shares
will be 10. On the other hand, if the expansion is financed by equity, the new
shares can be sold at Rs 33.33 per share and the price/earnings ratio of the
outstanding equity shares will be 12.
Required:
(a)
Assuming that net income before
interest on debt and taxes (EBIT) is 10% on sales, calculate EPS at assumed
sales of Rs 20 lakh, Rs 40 lakh, Rs 80 lakh and Rs 100 lakh under the
alternative forms of financing the expansion programme (assume no fixed costs).
(b)
Using the price/earnings ratios
indicated above, calculate the market price of equity shares at each sales
level for both debt and equity methods of financing.
(c)
If the company follows the policy of
seeking to maximize the market price of its equity shares, which form of
financing should be employed?
Solution: 13
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